Adult critical care nursing • Practice edition

200 ICU and ER Nursing Questions

200 original situational multiple-choice questions for adult ICU and emergency nursing review. Choose the single best answer from A–D. Each correct response earns one point; the maximum score is 200. Check your score after each topic, or finish the full exam to see your overall result.

Educational practice material, not a validated examination or bedside treatment protocol. Apply institutional policies, authorized orders, and local scope of practice. Unless stated otherwise, cases involve adults. Calculation items use the exact concentrations and prescriptions given; round only when instructed.

Instructions and abbreviations

IFC means indwelling Foley catheter. NGT means nasogastric tube; ABG, arterial blood gas; ECG, electrocardiogram; GCS, Glasgow Coma Scale; MAP, mean arterial pressure; PEEP, positive end-expiratory pressure; FiO2, inspired oxygen fraction; PaO2 and PaCO2, arterial oxygen and carbon dioxide pressures; SpO2, pulse-oximeter oxygen saturation; RASS, Richmond Agitation–Sedation Scale; CPOT, Critical-Care Pain Observation Tool; ROSC, return of spontaneous circulation; DNAR, do not attempt resuscitation; TBSA, total body surface area; ICP, intracranial pressure; CPP, cerebral perfusion pressure; TBI, traumatic brain injury; ACS, acute coronary syndrome; MI, myocardial infarction; ARDS, acute respiratory distress syndrome; NPO, nothing by mouth; IV/IO, intravenous/intraosseous; CSF, cerebrospinal fluid.

For ABG questions, typical reference ranges are pH 7.35–7.45, PaCO2 35–45 mmHg, and HCO3 22–26 mEq/L. ECG questions use text descriptions rather than rhythm-strip images. Select a topic or work through all 200. Scores and explanations stay hidden until you check a topic or finish the exam. Unanswered questions count as zero. Changing an answer hides that topic result and the overall result until you check again. Answers are not saved after closing or reloading this file.

0 of 200 answered

Oxygenation 1–10

001 A patient with pneumonia becomes restless, with SpO2 84% on room air and labored breathing. What should the nurse do first?
002 A patient with COPD and previous hypercapnic respiratory failure has a prescribed SpO2 target of 88–92%. On controlled oxygen, SpO2 is 90% and breathing is improving. What is appropriate?
003 A shivering patient has an SpO2 reading of 78%, a poor waveform, and no visible respiratory distress. What should the nurse do?
004 A patient rescued from a house fire has headache and confusion despite an SpO2 of 99%. Which action is most appropriate?
005 A patient using a reservoir oxygen mask has a bag that collapses completely during inspiration. What should the nurse check first?
006 A patient on high-flow nasal oxygen develops worsening fatigue, reduced alertness, and persistent hypoxemia. What is the priority?
007 A patient receiving noninvasive ventilation starts vomiting and cannot protect the airway. What should the nurse do?
008 A postoperative patient receiving opioids has a respiratory rate of 6/min and SpO2 96% on oxygen. What finding requires the most urgent response?
009 A breathless patient with pulmonary edema is alert and has adequate blood pressure. Which positioning action can improve breathing while treatment is arranged?
010 A patient stable on oxygen is being transferred to CT. Which check best prevents interrupted therapy?

Mechanical ventilation 11–20

011 A ventilated patient suddenly becomes hypoxemic and the ventilator stops delivering breaths. What should the nurse do first?
012 A high-pressure alarm occurs while a ventilated patient is biting the endotracheal tube. What is the best initial response?
013 A low-pressure alarm sounds immediately after repositioning a ventilated patient. What should the nurse rapidly inspect?
014 An ARDS patient has a prescribed tidal volume of 6 mL/kg predicted body weight. Predicted body weight is 60 kg and actual weight is 95 kg. Which volume matches the prescription?
015 A patient with severe asthma has expiratory flow that does not return to baseline before the next ventilator breath and develops hypotension. What problem should the nurse suspect?
016 After an increase in PEEP, a patient's blood pressure falls sharply. What is the priority nursing response?
017 During a spontaneous breathing trial, a patient develops marked distress, tachypnea, and falling SpO2. What should the nurse do?
018 A prone ventilated patient is due for a scheduled turn. Which preparation is most important?
019 A ventilated patient with no contraindication to elevation is receiving gastric feeding. Which position is generally appropriate?
020 A patient has rising airway pressures, unilateral absent breath sounds, and shock after central line insertion. What should the nurse do?

Intubation and extubation 21–30

021 A deteriorating patient is being prepared for emergency intubation. Which nursing action is most useful before induction?
022 After intubation of a patient with a pulse, which finding most reliably supports tracheal placement?
023 After intubation, breath sounds are louder on the right and absent on the left; oxygenation has worsened. What should the nurse suspect and report?
024 A newly intubated patient receives a neuromuscular blocker. Which ongoing care is essential?
025 An endotracheal tube depth changes from 22 cm to 18 cm at the teeth during turning. What should the nurse do?
026 A patient scheduled for extubation passes a breathing trial but cannot clear copious secretions. What should the nurse communicate?
027 Minutes after extubation, a patient develops stridor, retractions, and falling oxygen saturation. What is the priority?
028 An awake intubated patient repeatedly reaches for the tube. What is the best initial nursing approach?
029 A cuff-pressure check shows pressure above the unit's prescribed range. What should the nurse do?
030 A ventilated patient accidentally self-extubates. What should the nurse do first?

Suctioning techniques 31–40

031 A ventilated patient has visible secretions, coarse breath sounds, and a sawtooth ventilator waveform. What intervention is indicated?
032 A patient previously desaturated during suctioning. What should the nurse do before the next indicated procedure?
033 During suctioning, the patient's heart rate falls to 38/min and SpO2 drops. What is the immediate action?
034 A nurse proposes routine saline instillation before every endotracheal suction pass. What is the best response?
035 A nurse is selecting an adult suction catheter. Which choice best limits excessive airway occlusion?
036 A single suction pass has reached 15 seconds and the patient still has secretions. What should the nurse do?
037 A nurse prepares for open endotracheal suctioning. Which technique is appropriate?
038 Shallow suctioning fails to remove suspected deeper secretions. What should the nurse do?
039 A catheter will not pass through the endotracheal tube and ventilation is becoming difficult. What is the priority?
040 After suctioning, which finding best suggests an effective and tolerated procedure?

Arterial blood gases 41–50

041 A drowsy patient has pH 7.28, PaCO2 55 mmHg, and HCO3 25 mEq/L. Which primary disturbance is present?
042 A patient with panic-related hyperventilation has pH 7.50, PaCO2 29 mmHg, and HCO3 22 mEq/L. What is the primary disturbance?
043 A patient with diabetic ketoacidosis has pH 7.24, PaCO2 28 mmHg, and HCO3 12 mEq/L. What is the best interpretation?
044 A patient with prolonged vomiting has pH 7.49, PaCO2 47 mmHg, and HCO3 35 mEq/L. What is the best interpretation?
045 A patient with chronic CO2 retention has pH 7.36, PaCO2 60 mmHg, and HCO3 33 mEq/L. Which interpretation is most consistent?
046 A patient with severe asthma becomes drowsy; PaCO2 rises from 30 to 50 mmHg while work of breathing remains high. What is the priority?
047 A patient has PaO2 60 mmHg while receiving FiO2 0.60. What is the PaO2/FiO2 ratio?
048 A septic patient has pH 7.18, PaCO2 50 mmHg, and HCO3 18 mEq/L. Which interpretation fits best?
049 An ABG syringe contains a visible air bubble after collection. What should the nurse do?
050 A patient has severe hypoxemia but a normal pH. How should the nurse interpret this?

ECG interpretation 51–60

051 A conscious patient has an irregularly irregular narrow-complex rhythm with no consistent P waves. Which rhythm is most likely?
052 The monitor displays ventricular tachycardia and the patient is unresponsive. What should the nurse establish immediately while calling for help?
053 A patient has a regular wide-complex tachycardia with a pulse, BP 70/40 mmHg, and chest pain. What should the nurse prepare for?
054 A patient has sinus bradycardia at 35/min with hypotension and confusion. Which response is appropriate?
055 A dialysis patient has weakness, potassium 6.8 mEq/L, peaked T waves, and widening QRS complexes. What is the priority?
056 A patient with chest pressure has new ST elevation in contiguous leads. What should the nurse do?
057 A patient develops polymorphic ventricular tachycardia with no pulse. What should the team do?
058 The monitor shows asystole, but the patient is awake and talking. What should the nurse do?
059 A patient has PR intervals that progressively lengthen until a QRS is dropped. Which rhythm pattern is present?
060 A patient with a temporary pacemaker has pacing spikes without subsequent QRS complexes and becomes hypotensive. What should the nurse suspect?

Inotropes and vasoactive medications 61–70

061 A patient with septic shock remains hypotensive after initial fluid assessment and resuscitation. Which prescribed drug is generally the first-line vasopressor?
062 A norepinephrine infusion runs through a peripheral IV while central access is arranged. Which nursing assessment is especially important?
063 A peripheral vasopressor site becomes painful, pale, and swollen. What should the nurse do?
064 A patient on dobutamine develops new tachyarrhythmia and chest pain. What is the priority?
065 A vasopressor order permits titration to MAP at least 65 mmHg. BP is 78/42 mmHg with poor perfusion. What should the nurse do?
066 A central-line lumen carries norepinephrine. Another medication is due, but compatibility is unknown. What should the nurse do?
067 A new norepinephrine bag has twice the previous concentration. What must happen before connecting it?
068 A patient on vasopressors develops cold mottled toes despite an improved MAP. What is the best response?
069 A norepinephrine bag is nearly empty in a patient who becomes hypotensive during interruptions. What is the best plan?
070 A patient receiving an inotrope has improved blood pressure but decreasing urine output and rising lactate. How should the nurse interpret this?

Drug and fluid computations 71–80

071 A 70-kg patient is prescribed norepinephrine 0.1 microgram/kg/min. The bag contains 4 mg in a total of 250 mL. What pump rate is required?
072 Dobutamine is prescribed at 5 micrograms/kg/min for an 80-kg patient. The bag contains 250 mg in a total of 250 mL. What is the rate?
073 A heparin bag contains 25,000 units in a total of 250 mL. The prescribed dose is 1,200 units/hour. What rate is correct?
074 Propofol is prescribed at 20 micrograms/kg/min for a 60-kg patient. Concentration is 10 mg/mL. What rate is required?
075 Fentanyl is prescribed at 50 micrograms/hour. The syringe contains 1,000 micrograms in a total of 100 mL. What rate is correct?
076 An insulin infusion contains 100 units in a total of 100 mL. The protocol calls for 3 units/hour. What rate is correct?
077 A prescribed 500-mL fluid bolus must run over 30 minutes on a pump. What rate is required?
078 A prescription specifies 20 mEq potassium chloride in a final volume of 100 mL over 2 hours. What pump rate matches the order?
079 Epinephrine 1 mg IV/IO is ordered during adult cardiac arrest. The available labeled concentration is 0.1 mg/mL. What volume is required?
080 A prescribed infusion is 100 mL/hour using tubing calibrated at 20 drops/mL. What gravity rate is closest, rounded to a whole drop?

Sedation pain and delirium 81–90

081 A ventilated patient is grimacing and guarding a surgical wound despite sedation. What should the nurse do?
082 A sedation target is RASS −1 to 0, but the patient is RASS −4 without a current indication for deep sedation. What is appropriate?
083 An ICU patient becomes inattentive and disoriented overnight after being oriented earlier. What should the nurse do?
084 A patient is scheduled for a spontaneous awakening trial but has active seizures. What should the nurse do?
085 A patient receiving dexmedetomidine develops significant bradycardia and hypotension. What is the priority?
086 A patient on prolonged propofol infusion develops unexplained metabolic acidosis, rhabdomyolysis, and cardiovascular deterioration. What should the nurse suspect?
087 A nonverbal intubated patient needs pain reassessment after analgesia. Which tool is suitable?
088 A confused ICU patient has poor sleep and cannot hear staff well without hearing aids. What intervention is appropriate?
089 A patient has received high-dose opioids for many days. The team plans discontinuation. What should the nurse anticipate?
090 A deeply sedated patient receiving neuromuscular blockade has a train-of-four result within target. What does this establish?

Nasogastric tube insertion and care 91–100

091 A newly inserted nasogastric tube is ready for first use, but placement has not been verified. What should the nurse do?
092 During nasogastric insertion, a patient develops severe coughing, cyanosis, and respiratory distress. What should the nurse do?
093 A patient with facial trauma and suspected skull-base fracture needs gastric decompression. What is the safest nursing response?
094 A patient's feeding tube external length is 8 cm longer than previously documented. What should the nurse do?
095 A newly inserted NG tube yields aspirate with pH 6.5 in a unit that accepts pH 1–5.5 for initial confirmation. What should the nurse do?
096 A patient receiving enteral feeding begins vomiting and becomes hypoxemic. What is the priority?
097 A patient has several medications due through an NG tube. Which practice is appropriate?
098 An NG tube becomes blocked during medication administration. What should the nurse do?
099 A patient on continuous gastric suction develops weakness, potassium 2.9 mEq/L, and rising bicarbonate. What should the nurse report?
100 An NG tube causes redness and breakdown at the nostril. What is the best nursing action?

Indwelling Foley catheter care 101–110

101 A stable patient has a Foley catheter inserted only for convenience during incontinence care. What should the nurse recommend?
102 A critically ill patient needs accurate hourly urine output during shock resuscitation. How should the nurse interpret this catheter indication?
103 A urinary drainage bag is resting on the patient's abdomen. What should the nurse do?
104 A patient with a Foley has new low output and a distended bladder. What should the nurse assess first?
105 A urine culture is ordered for a catheterized patient. Where should the specimen be obtained?
106 During Foley insertion, the sterile catheter touches a nonsterile surface. What should the nurse do?
107 A nurse feels resistance and the patient reports severe pain during catheter advancement. What is appropriate?
108 After catheter insertion, urine returns but the catheter has not yet been advanced as required by the device procedure. What should the nurse do before balloon inflation?
109 A catheterized patient has cloudy urine but no compatible symptoms or new systemic findings. What is the best response?
110 A drainage-system connection separates accidentally. What should the nurse do?

Glasgow Coma Scale and neurological assessment 111–120

111 After a fall, a patient opens eyes to voice, is confused in conversation, and obeys commands. What is the GCS score?
112 A patient opens eyes only to pressure, makes incomprehensible sounds, and withdraws normally from pressure. What is the GCS score?
113 A patient opens eyes spontaneously, is fully oriented, and obeys commands. What should the nurse document?
114 An intubated patient opens eyes to voice and obeys commands but cannot speak because of the tube. What is the clearest documentation?
115 A patient's GCS falls from 14 to 10 over 20 minutes. What should the nurse do?
116 A patient does not open the eyes because both lids are severely swollen shut. How should the eye component be recorded?
117 A patient reaches toward and tries to remove a stimulus applied near the head. Which motor response does this best demonstrate?
118 A sedated patient has a lower GCS immediately after a medication bolus. What should the nurse include in interpretation?
119 A patient with head trauma has a new unilateral dilated pupil and reduced consciousness. What is the priority?
120 A patient has E4 V4 M6. A colleague documents only “GCS 14.” What additional information improves handover?

Blood transfusion and massive transfusion 121–130

121 Before starting red cells, the nurse notices that the unit identifier does not match the compatibility paperwork. What should happen?
122 Ten minutes after red cells begin, a patient develops rigors, back pain, and hypotension. What is the first action?
123 After stopping a suspected severe transfusion reaction, how should IV access be managed?
124 A patient with active traumatic hemorrhage is rapidly deteriorating. What should the nurse prepare for when the team activates the major hemorrhage protocol?
125 During massive transfusion, a patient develops prolonged QT and low ionized calcium. What should the nurse anticipate?
126 A massively bleeding patient is becoming hypothermic. Which intervention is appropriate?
127 A patient with heart failure develops dyspnea, hypertension, and pulmonary edema during transfusion. What complication is especially concerning?
128 A patient develops acute hypoxemia and bilateral pulmonary infiltrates shortly after transfusion without evidence of circulatory overload. What should be considered?
129 A patient has uncontrolled hemorrhage but an initial hemoglobin in the laboratory's normal range. What should the nurse recognize?
130 After a suspected transfusion reaction, what should happen to the implicated bag and tubing?

Code blue and resuscitation 131–140

131 A hospitalized adult is unresponsive, is only gasping, and has no definite pulse within 10 seconds. What should the nurse do?
132 During adult CPR, feedback shows a compression rate of 80/min. Which correction is appropriate?
133 A rescuer compresses an adult chest about 3 cm. What feedback is appropriate?
134 The defibrillator identifies ventricular fibrillation. After a shock is delivered, what should the team do?
135 A rhythm check reveals organized electrical activity but no pulse. What treatment pathway applies?
136 A patient remains in adult cardiac arrest and has received epinephrine 1 mg IV/IO. When is repeat dosing generally scheduled?
137 An advanced airway is in place during adult CPR. What ventilation pattern is appropriate?
138 During CPR, end-tidal CO2 abruptly rises and stays elevated. What should the team consider?
139 A code leader asks for a medication. Which response demonstrates closed-loop communication?
140 After ROSC, a patient remains comatose and hypotensive. What is the priority plan?

Chest tube thoracostomy care 141–150

141 A chest drainage unit is placed on the bed above the insertion site. What should the nurse do?
142 A pneumothorax drain has continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber. What should the nurse assess?
143 A patient with a bubbling pneumothorax drain is ready for transport. Which practice should be avoided unless specifically directed by the specialist?
144 A patient's drain suddenly stops tidaling and the patient becomes dyspneic. What should the nurse do?
145 A chest tube is accidentally pulled out of the chest. What should the nurse do?
146 A trauma patient's chest tube rapidly drains fresh blood and BP falls. What is the priority?
147 A patient develops new swelling with palpable crackling around a chest tube site. What should the nurse do?
148 A colleague plans to strip a chest tube vigorously every hour despite no order. What is the best response?
149 During drainage of a large pleural effusion, a patient develops chest tightness and persistent coughing. What should the nurse do?
150 A chest drain is removed by an authorized clinician. What nursing follow-up is most important?

Preventing ICU complications 151–160

151 An immobile patient has persistent nonblanching redness over the sacrum. What is the best nursing action?
152 A ventilated patient is stable enough for movement but has multiple lines. What is the safest mobility plan?
153 A patient on escalating vasopressors becomes hypotensive when sitting. What should the nurse do?
154 A sedated patient's heels rest continuously on the mattress. What intervention is appropriate?
155 Moisture from frequent stooling is damaging a patient's perineal skin. What is the best plan?
156 A stable ventilated patient has a plan for daily oral care. Which action is appropriate?
157 A patient has limited mobility and an ordered venous-thromboembolism prevention plan. What should the nurse do?
158 A central-line dressing becomes damp and partially detached. What should the nurse do?
159 A patient has a rigid cervical collar and no visible skin injury on exposed areas. What additional assessment is important?
160 A recovering ICU patient reports nightmares, weakness, and poor concentration. What is the best response?

Ethics palliative care and post mortem care 161–170

161 A patient with decision-making capacity declines intubation after receiving clear information. The family demands intubation. What should the nurse do?
162 A patient has a valid DNAR order and develops treatable pain and breathlessness. What should the nurse do?
163 A patient lacks capacity and has an applicable advance directive. What should the nurse prioritize during care planning?
164 A dying patient has distressing dyspnea despite positioning and reassurance. An opioid is prescribed for symptom relief. What is appropriate?
165 A family asks whether stopping burdensome life support means the team will stop caring. What is the best response?
166 A patient nearing death requests a spiritual adviser and specific cultural practices. What should the nurse do?
167 Family members disagree about treatment for an incapacitated patient. What is the best nursing action?
168 A patient dies after an injury that may require medicolegal investigation. What should the nurse do before removing tubes or cleaning extensively?
169 Before transferring a deceased patient to the mortuary, which action is essential?
170 A bereaved family requests time at the bedside after death. What is an appropriate response?

Shock syndromes and myocardial infarction 171–180

171 A patient with suspected infection is confused, hypotensive, and oliguric. What is the best response?
172 A patient in septic shock needs cultures and antibiotics. Drawing cultures is taking unusually long. What should the nurse do?
173 A patient receiving a fluid challenge develops worsening crackles and dyspnea without improved perfusion. What should the nurse do?
174 A patient develops wheezing, generalized hives, and hypotension shortly after an antibiotic starts. What is the priority?
175 A patient with acute MI develops cool clammy skin, pulmonary crackles, and hypotension. What shock mechanism is most likely?
176 A patient with acute chest pressure has not yet had an ECG. Which action is a priority?
177 A patient with suspected ACS has no aspirin allergy, active bleeding, or other identified contraindication. A protocol authorizes chewable aspirin. What should the nurse do?
178 A patient with chest pain reports recent sildenafil use and has BP 86/50 mmHg. Nitroglycerin is due. What should the nurse do?
179 A stable patient with ACS has SpO2 97% on room air and no respiratory distress. What is appropriate?
180 After femoral coronary intervention, a patient develops hypotension, back pain, and a falling hemoglobin without major external bleeding. What should the nurse suspect?

Stroke and head trauma 181–190

181 A patient suddenly develops facial droop and unilateral arm weakness. What information should the nurse establish while activating the stroke pathway?
182 A patient with suspected stroke is awaiting brain imaging. The family offers water. What should the nurse do?
183 A patient with new focal neurological deficits has glucose 42 mg/dL. What is appropriate?
184 A patient receiving IV thrombolytic treatment develops sudden severe headache, vomiting, and reduced consciousness. What should the nurse do?
185 A patient wakes with stroke symptoms, so the onset time is uncertain. What should the nurse do?
186 A head-injured patient has declining consciousness and repeated vomiting after a vehicle crash. What is the priority?
187 A patient with raised intracranial pressure is positioned with the neck sharply flexed. What should the nurse do if hemodynamically tolerated and consistent with orders?
188 A patient with severe TBI develops SpO2 82% and marked hypotension. Which priority is correct?
189 A patient with TBI has MAP 85 mmHg and ICP 25 mmHg. What is the calculated cerebral perfusion pressure?
190 A patient with head trauma has clear fluid draining from an ear. What should the nurse do?

Burns and integrated ICU and ER management 191–200

191 A burn patient has facial burns, a hoarse voice, and soot in the mouth after an enclosed-space fire. What is the priority?
192 A patient has circumferential full-thickness arm burns and increasing pain, cool fingers, and reduced distal perfusion. What should the nurse do?
193 A 70-kg adult has burns covering 30% TBSA. The team orders an initial 24-hour estimate using 2 mL/kg/%TBSA. What volume does this formula yield?
194 A burn-fluid order allocates half the calculated volume within the first 8 hours after injury. The patient arrives 2 hours after injury with none yet given. Over how much remaining time is that first half due?
195 A chemical-burn patient arrives with dry powder on the skin. What is the best initial approach?
196 A patient with electrical burns has small skin wounds but muscle pain and dark urine. What is the priority?
197 A severely burned patient is undergoing initial resuscitation. Which trend best helps evaluate response alongside other perfusion measures?
198 Four patients arrive together. Which requires the most immediate assessment?
199 A ventilated septic patient suddenly desaturates during tube feeding, develops high airway pressures, and has formula in the mouth. What should the nurse do first?
200 At handover, a patient is on vasopressors after hemorrhage control and remains intubated. Which report best supports safe ongoing care?

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Clinical references

Selected references checked 22 September 2026. These original fictional scenarios are educational material. References support the clinical principles; local policies govern procedure details, legal processes, and post-mortem requirements.

  1. American Heart Association 2025 Adult Basic Life Support — Code blue and CPR
  2. American Heart Association 2025 Adult Advanced Life Support — Arrhythmias, airway confirmation, and arrest treatment
  3. American Heart Association 2025 Post Cardiac Arrest Care — Care after return of circulation
  4. SCCM Surviving Sepsis Campaign Guidelines 2021 — Sepsis, shock, fluids, and vasopressors
  5. AARC Artificial Airway Suctioning 2022 — Indications, technique, and suction duration
  6. AARC Management of Adult Patients With Oxygen in the Acute Care Setting — Oxygen delivery and individualized targets
  7. AARC Patient Ventilator Assessment 2024 — Mechanical ventilation assessment
  8. SCCM Focused PADIS Guideline Update 2025 — Sedation, delirium, and mobility
  9. SCCM ICU Liberation — Pain, awakening, breathing trials, delirium, mobility, and family engagement
  10. NHS England Nasogastric Tube Placement Safety Alert — Initial NG placement confirmation
  11. CDC CAUTI Summary of Recommendations — Foley indications, insertion, maintenance, and sampling
  12. Glasgow Coma Scale Assessment Aid — GCS component assessment
  13. Glasgow Coma Scale Frequently Asked Questions — Not testable components and intubation
  14. Australian Red Cross Lifeblood Management of Suspected Reactions — Recognition and initial response to transfusion reactions
  15. Australian Red Cross Lifeblood Blood Administration — Bedside checks and transfusion monitoring
  16. National Blood Authority Adults With Critical Bleeding — Major hemorrhage, temperature, and calcium monitoring
  17. British Thoracic Society Clinical Statement on Pleural Procedures 2023 — Chest drain care and drainage complications
  18. NICE Care of Dying Adults in the Last Days of Life — Communication, symptom relief, and individual preferences
  19. ACC AHA Acute Coronary Syndromes Guideline 2025 — Acute MI, antiplatelet treatment, and oxygen
  20. AHA ASA Acute Ischemic Stroke Guideline 2026 — Time-critical stroke assessment and reperfusion eligibility
  21. American College of Surgeons Traumatic Brain Injury Best Practices — Head injury, perfusion, and secondary injury prevention
  22. American Burn Association Clinical Practice Guidelines — Burn shock resuscitation and burn care